(Q1) No matter how many decimal places one cares to expand it, it's always going to be less than 1. You tell me how many digits to carry it out, and I'll tell you what the difference is between that and 1. Doesn't this imply they are not equal?
(A1) If I tell you any particular decimal place to carry out the expansion (no matter how many digits that may be) then true, the result will always be less than 1. However, we wouldn't be talking about
anymore, but rather something else entirely that has the form
, where ...could be any finite number of nines (regardless of how many that may be,) followed by a final terminating 9. This is not equivalent to
, which has no such terminating position. The pattern repeats indefinitely, which is the very meaning of the overbar in the expression. The decimal expansion never ends. Realize, if there is to be a ``difference'' between
and 1 then we could equate
to
by specifying an appropriate number of digits in
. In other words, it would be a terminating decimal. This is a contradiction, since the expression
by definition (of the overbar) is a repeating decimal.
(Q2) Could it be that a real number between
and 1 does in fact exist, but we just don't know how to properly describe it with decimal notation?
(A2) If such a number exists, it could certainly be described to some extent as a decimal, since all real numbers have decimal expansions that either:
(Q3) Isn't the difference between
and 1 something like
?
(A3) That is not a valid expression for a real number. The repeating pattern
means you would never get to the terminating 1, so if this expression was any number at all--and I'm not saying it is--it would have to be 0 since
. Furthermore, if the difference between two real numbers is 0, then they are in fact the same number
(Q4) I have seen some rather simple algebraic proofs that show
. Are they valid, and if not where do they break down?
(A4) Although not formal proofs, they are indeed valid demonstrations. The assumptions they rely on can be proven, with appropriate methods, to be valid (including the assumptions made in A1-A3.)
Another simple demonstration relies on the assumption that
is equal to
. Many who are at first skeptical of
seem to have no problem understanding that
, perhaps because it is easily verified with long division:
So we have
Don't be too quick to assume a logical fallacy here. Although it is certainly true that 1 goes into 1.0 1.0 times, it is also true that 1 goes into 1.0 .9 times with a remainder of .1. Then, 1 goes into .10 .09 times with a remainder of .01, and so forth. Of course this is not the standard way long division is usually performed, but it is valid nonetheless.
(Q5) What's all this I hear about series? What does a series have to do with
?
(A5) Using an infinite sum (a.k.a. series) is a more appropriate method of proving
. A series is basically a never ending addition problem, so
can be represented by the series:
![]() |
Not all series actually have a sum. Those that do are said to converge while those that do not are said to diverge. Convergent and divergent series are defined as follows:
For the infinite series
, the
partial sum is given by:
If the sequence of partial sums
In other words, the sum of an infinite series is equal to the limit of its
partial sum, if this limit exists (if it does not exist, the series has no sum.) Also, an infinite sequence converges to L if the limit of its
term is L. Furthermore, the sum of the series is also equal to L. Using the definition, we can directly prove
. Let's take some partial sums:
![]() |
||||
![]() |
||||
![]() |
A pattern is easily recognizable that lets us generalize the
partial sum. The denominators of the partial sums are successive powers of 10. The numerators are all 1 less than the denominator, so we can write the
partial sum as:
According to the definition, the series
will converge to
, if the limit exists. The limit indeed exists (it's 1, proof omitted) and we conclude that:
At this point, it is inevitable that someone will argue something to the effect of, ``just because that limit is 1 doesn't necessarily mean the sum of the series is 1 because it is well known that things don't have to equal their limit value.'' But this line of reasoning is invalid, since the very definition of convergent series tells us this limit is the sum of the series.
Of course, we don't necessarily have to use the definition each and every time we need to find the sum of a series. There are various formulas that we can use to find the sums of certain types of series. In our case, you may recognize
as a geometric series with a first term
of
and a ratio
of
. If
, a geometric series will converge. Furthermore, it will converge to the sum:
Letting
Some Final Thoughts.
Since all repeating decimals are rational numbers,
itself is a rational number. But which rational number is it? Is it
? Is it
? Is it
? It can be none of these, even if you carry the pattern out as far as you like, because they all have decimal representations that terminate. So, how can we easily convert not only
, but any repeating decimal into its fractional form? One commonly used method to accomplish this is to divide the part that repeats (the period) by the same number of nines as there are digits in the period. This will become clear with a few examples, that are easily verifiable with long division:
And finally,
has a period consisting of one digit. Dividing this one digit by one nine yields
which simplifies to 1.